NRCMA Exam Dumps, NRCMA Practice Test Questions
PDF (New 2024) Actual NAHP NRCMA Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 104
A subdivision of the brain that consists of medulla, pons, and midbrain, located between the spinal cord and the cerebrum is called the:
- A. brainspan
- B. brainstem
- C. cortex
- D. brainstorm
Answer: B
Explanation:
The brainstem is the subdivision of the brain that consists of the medulla, pons, and midbrain. It is located between the spinal cord and the cerebrum and plays a crucial role in regulating vital life functions such as heart rate, breathing, and sleep cycles. The brainstem acts as a conduit for all the information passing between the brain and the rest of the body.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Prognosis refers to:
- A. complete knowledge
- B. after knowledge
- C. prediction of outcome
- D. before woman
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prognosis refers to the prediction of the outcome of a disease or medical condition. It involves forecasting the likely course, duration, and outcome of a patient's disease based on the condition's natural history, the patient's health, and the treatment options available. A prognosis can range from good, with full recovery expected, to poor, where complications or fatal outcomes are anticipated.
Reference:
Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine
NEW QUESTION # 106
A congenital defect consisting of the absence of a vertebral arch of the spinal column is called:
- A. tabes dorsalis
- B. spina bifida
- C. hydrocephalus
- D. paresthesia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Spina bifida is a congenital defect where there is an absence of a vertebral arch in the spinal column. This defect occurs during fetal development and can lead to varying degrees of disability, depending on the severity of the condition. The spinal cord and nerves can be exposed, leading to potential complications such as paralysis and infections. Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials, pediatric and congenital disorder textbooks.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Serum:
- A. can be used for most hematology tests
- B. can be used for all blood chemistry tests
- C. is the clear liquid that can be separated from clotted blood
- D. none of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the clot has been removed. It is essentially plasma without the clotting factors (like fibrinogen). Serum can be separated from clotted blood and is used for various blood chemistry tests, but not typically for most hematology tests, which require whole blood or plasma. Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials, clinical laboratory textbooks.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Intercostal refers to
- A. under the cartilage
- B. on the cartilage
- C. between the ribs
- D. under the ribs
Answer: C
Explanation:
The term intercostal refers to the anatomical location between the ribs. "Inter-" means between, and "costal" pertains to the ribs. The intercostal muscles, for example, are muscles located between the ribs that play a key role in the respiratory process by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity.
Reference:
Moore, K. L., Dalley, A. F., & Agur, A. M. R. (2013). Clinically Oriented Anatomy (7th ed.). Wolters Kluwer.
Tortora, G. J., & Derrickson, B. (2017). Principles of Anatomy and Physiology (15th ed.). Wiley.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Osteo means:
- A. bone
- B. joint
- C. cartilage
- D. knee
Answer: A
Explanation:
The prefix osteo- means bone. This prefix is used in medical terminology to refer to conditions and structures related to bones, such as osteoarthritis (a type of arthritis that affects bones and joints) and osteoporosis (a condition where bones become weak and brittle).
Reference:
Mosby's Medical Dictionary (10th ed.). (2017). Elsevier.
Stedman's Medical Dictionary (28th ed.). (2006). Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
NEW QUESTION # 110
The type of physician that would diagnose and treat diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion is a(n).
- A. Gynecologist
- B. Endocrinologist
- C. Gastroenterologist
- D. Urologist
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Endocrinologist is a physician specializing in diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the endocrine glands, which secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These glands include the thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, pituitary, and others. Endocrinologists manage conditions such as diabetes, thyroid disorders, and hormonal imbalances.
Gynecologist: Specializes in women's reproductive health.
Gastroenterologist: Specializes in the digestive system.
Urologist: Specializes in the urinary system and male reproductive organs.
Reference:
"What is an Endocrinologist?" Hormone Health Network, https://www.hormone.org/your-health-and-hormones/what-is-an-endocrinologist
NEW QUESTION # 111
A metabolic bone disorder affecting primarily postmenopausal women and is characterized by the loss of calcium and phosphate from the bone:
- A. osteoporosis
- B. scoliosis
- C. kyphosis
- D. sprain
Answer: A
Explanation:
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disorder characterized by the loss of bone density and strength due to the depletion of calcium and phosphate. This condition primarily affects postmenopausal women because the decrease in estrogen levels during menopause accelerates bone loss. Osteoporosis makes bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures.
Scoliosis: A sideways curvature of the spine.
Kyphosis: An excessive outward curvature of the spine, leading to a hunchback appearance.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Under what program may retired military or their dependents or active military personnel receive care?
- A. Medicare
- B. TRICARC
- C. workers' compensation
- D. HIC
Answer: B
Explanation:
TRICARE is the health care program for retired military personnel, their dependents, and active-duty military personnel. It provides comprehensive coverage, including health plans, special programs, prescriptions, and dental plans. TRICARE serves uniformed service members, retirees, and their families worldwide. Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials, TRICARE program guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 113
When a venipuncture is performed using a lavender top vacutainer tube, the sample
- A. aandc
- B. is commonly used for hematology testing
- C. does not clot because an anticoagulant has been mixed with the whole blood
- D. is allowed to clot, and after centrifuging, the liquid portion is used for chemistry testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a venipuncture is performed using a lavender top vacutainer tube, the sample is commonly used for hematology testing, such as complete blood counts (CBC). The lavender top tube contains an anticoagulant called EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid), which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows for the preservation of the cellular components of the blood for accurate hematological analysis.
Reference:
Clinical Laboratory Science: The Basics and Routine Techniques by Jean Jorgenson Linne Phlebotomy Essentials by Ruth E. McCall and Cathee M. Tankersley
NEW QUESTION # 114
Drug agents that neutralize the hydrochloric acid in the stomach are called
- A. tranquilizers
- B. alcohol
- C. analgesics
- D. antacids
Answer: D
Explanation:
Drug agents that neutralize the hydrochloric acid in the stomach are called antacids. Antacids are used to relieve symptoms of indigestion, heartburn, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). They work by neutralizing stomach acid to reduce irritation and discomfort.
Reference:
Pharmacology for Health Professionals by Bronwen Bryant and Kathleen Knights Goodman & Gilman's: The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
NEW QUESTION # 115
The word part itis means
- A. inflammation
- B. soft
- C. malignant
- D. condition
Answer: A
Explanation:
The word part "itis" means inflammation. It is commonly used in medical terminology to describe inflammatory conditions affecting various parts of the body. For example, "arthritis" refers to inflammation of the joints, and "bronchitis" refers to inflammation of the bronchi.
Reference:
Medical Terminology: A Short Course by Davi-Ellen Chabner
Stedman's Medical Dictionary
NEW QUESTION # 116
The word part nephro means:
- A. liver
- B. kidney
- C. glomerulus
- D. spleen
Answer: B
Explanation:
The word part "nephro-" comes from the Greek word "nephros," meaning kidney. It is used in medical terminology to refer to conditions, procedures, or anatomical parts related to the kidneys. Examples include nephrology (the study of kidney function and diseases) and nephrectomy (surgical removal of a kidney). Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials, medical dictionaries.
NEW QUESTION # 117
The best respiratory rate can be taken by:
- A. watching the patient's chest rise and fall while appearing to take the. Pulse
- B. having someone else distract the patient while you check the respiration
- C. placing your hand on the patient's chest
- D. telling the patient that you are taking their respiration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to take a respiratory rate is by watching the patient's chest rise and fall while appearing to take the pulse. This method allows for an accurate count of breaths per minute without making the patient conscious of their breathing, which could alter the rate. This approach is subtle and ensures that the patient remains relaxed. Reference: Nationally Registered Certified Medical Assistant study materials, clinical examination techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Normal oral temperature is 98.6°F. The equivalent Celsius temperature is:
- A. 39.(FC
- B. 37.osc
- C. 3/.f>°C
- D. 36.0°C
Answer: B
Explanation:
Normal oral temperature of 98.6°F is equivalent to 37.0°C. This conversion is based on the formula for converting Fahrenheit to Celsius: C=(F-32)×59\text{C} = (\text{F} - 32) \times \frac{5}{9}C=(F-32)×95. Maintaining accurate temperature readings is important for diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
Reference:
Clinical Methods: The History, Physical, and Laboratory Examinations by Walker, Hall, and Hurst Temperature and Vital Signs Monitoring in Clinical Practice
NEW QUESTION # 119
A tumor that is Don-progressive and not life threatening is considered:
- A. adenine
- B. malignant
- C. benign
- D. sarcoma
Answer: C
Explanation:
A tumor that is non-progressive and not life-threatening is considered benign. Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body and generally grow slowly. They are not cancerous and are usually not a threat to life, although they can cause problems if they press on vital organs or tissues.
Reference:
American Cancer Society. (n.d.). What
NEW QUESTION # 120
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