Reliable Clinical Documentation Specialist CCDS-O Dumps PDF Aug 24, 2026 Recently Updated Questions
Pass Your ACDIS CCDS-O Exam with Correct 137 Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following BEST describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Pre-ulcer skin changes limited to persistent focal edema
- B. Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue
- C. Abrasion, blister, partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis
- D. Necrosis of soft tissues through to underlying muscle, tendon, or bone
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stage 3 pressure ulcers are defined by full-thickness skin loss where the injury extends through the dermis and involves damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Clinically, the ulcer may present as a deep crater and can include undermining or tunneling, but the key boundary is that bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. That deeper involvement (exposed muscle/tendon/bone) is characteristic of Stage 4, making option C incorrect. Option D describes partial-thickness loss, which aligns with Stage 2 (epidermis/dermis involvement such as abrasion or blister). Option A reflects early skin changes that correspond more closely to Stage 1 (intact skin with non-blanchable erythema and possible localized edema/induration). In outpatient CDI chart review, accurately distinguishing Stage 3 from Stage 2 and Stage 4 is essential because staging drives severity capture, care planning (wound care interventions, debridement considerations), and quality reporting. Documentation should clearly support "full thickness," the tissue layers involved, and the absence of exposed bone/tendon/muscle.
NEW QUESTION # 15
A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient's final RAF score for these diagnoses?
- A. 0.932
- B. 0.678
- C. 1.418
- D. 0.797
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient's RAF is calculated by adding the applicable HCC weights plus the demographic factor, but only after applying the HCC model's hierarchy rules. In outpatient risk adjustment education (as emphasized in ACDIS-based training), certain condition groups are hierarchical-meaning multiple related diagnoses in the same hierarchy do not "stack." Instead, only the highest-ranked HCC in that disease group contributes to the RAF. Here, "diabetes with nephropathy" and "diabetes with retinopathy" both carry the same HCC weight (0.166) and fall within the diabetes complication hierarchy, so they do not add together; only one 0.166 value is counted. Atrial fibrillation contributes separately (0.299), and the demographic risk factor contributes (0.332). Therefore, the final RAF is 0.166 + 0.299 + 0.332 = 0.797. This illustrates why outpatient CDI focuses on documenting all clinically supported conditions for care accuracy, while understanding that some related diagnoses won't increase RAF beyond the highest applicable HCC in that hierarchy.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is a key component that is used to calculate Relative Value Units (RVUs)?
- A. Malpractice expense
- B. Medical decision making
- C. Physician specialty type
- D. Time with the patient
Answer: A
Explanation:
RVUs are the foundation of Medicare's physician fee schedule methodology and are built from three core components: physician work (wRVU), practice expense (peRVU), and malpractice (mpRVU). The malpractice expense RVU reflects the relative professional liability insurance cost associated with providing a service and is a defined element of the RVU calculation used to determine payment rates. In outpatient documentation and CDI education, it's important to distinguish what drives code selection versus what is a payment calculation ingredient. Time with the patient and medical decision making influence E/M code selection under current E/M rules, but they are not standalone components of the RVU formula itself-they contribute indirectly by determining which CPT code is billed, and each CPT code has preassigned RVUs. Physician specialty type also is not a direct RVU component, even though specialty patterns can affect typical service mix and overall wRVU productivity. Therefore, among the options, malpractice expense is the explicit RVU component used in the calculation.
NEW QUESTION # 17
The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?
- A. The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.
- B. The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.
- C. The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.
- D. The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Year 2 shows a higher total volume of MDD diagnoses (185,090 vs. 155,501), but the key CDI signal is the shift in coding specificity: "MDD, specified" increases substantially (118,516 vs. 76,318), while "MDD, unspecified" decreases (66,574 vs. 79,193). In outpatient CDI terms, this pattern is consistent with improved documentation quality and code capture-providers are describing the condition with greater clinical detail (episode type, severity, remission status, recurrence, etc.), allowing assignment of more specific ICD codes. When an HCC value (0.299) is associated with MDD, improved capture of qualifying, specific MDD codes supports more accurate risk adjustment. That increases the accuracy of projected resource need and affects future cost benchmarking (and potentially quality/utilization comparisons) because the population's documented burden of illness is better represented. Therefore, the appropriate inference is increased patients plus increased "specified" use and decreased "unspecified," with an impact on future benchmarking.
NEW QUESTION # 18
E/M services must meet specific medical necessity criteria as defined by
- A. American Health Information Management Association.
- B. American Medical Association and American Hospital Association.
- C. National Medical Specialty Societies.
- D. National Coverage Determinations and Local Coverage Determinations.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For outpatient Evaluation and Management (E/M) services, "medical necessity" is ultimately judged against Medicare coverage policy, which is established through National Coverage Determinations (NCDs) and Local Coverage Determinations (LCDs). NCDs set nationwide rules for when specific services are considered reasonable and necessary, while LCDs are developed by Medicare Administrative Contractors to define coverage expectations within their jurisdictions, including indications, frequency limits, required documentation elements, and diagnosis-to-service relationships. Outpatient CDI and coding education emphasizes that correct E/M code selection and documentation must support not only the level of service (MDM/time) but also why the service was needed based on the patient's condition and the payer's coverage criteria. Specialty society recommendations and AMA/AHA guidance can inform clinical practice and coding conventions, but they do not define Medicare coverage requirements. Likewise, AHIMA provides professional guidance but does not set payer medical necessity policy. Therefore, the most accurate source defining medical necessity criteria for billing compliance is NCDs and LCDs.
NEW QUESTION # 19
In which of the following situations would a yes/no query format be considered compliant?
- A. Obtaining a new (previously undocumented) diagnosis
- B. Resolving conflicting documentation from multiple providers
- C. Obtaining a specification of a contributing organism to an infection
- D. Clarifying acuity of disease process
Answer: B
Explanation:
A yes/no query format is considered compliant when it is used to resolve a clear documentation conflict and the provider is being asked to confirm which statement accurately reflects the patient's condition for that encounter. In these situations, the intent is not to introduce a new diagnosis or steer the provider toward a particular coded outcome, but to reconcile inconsistent information already present in the record (e.g., one clinician documents a condition and another documents the opposite, or different notes describe different statuses). A focused yes/no confirmation can be appropriate because the clinical question is essentially binary: which interpretation is correct. By contrast, obtaining a new diagnosis generally requires an open-ended or multiple-choice format with balanced options (including "unable to determine") and strong encounter-specific indicators to avoid leading. Likewise, organism specification and acuity clarification often involve more than two clinically valid possibilities (different organisms, acute vs chronic vs acute-on-chronic, etc.), making yes/no overly restrictive and potentially leading. Therefore, resolving conflicting documentation is the best fit for a compliant yes/no query.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A morbidly obese patient with a BMI of 45 who is reliant on CPAP at night is likely to have which of the following conditions?
- A. Essential hypertension
- B. Heart failure
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Alveolar hypoventilation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Nightly reliance on CPAP in a morbidly obese patient most strongly points to sleep-disordered breathing, and in the context of severe obesity (BMI 45), it raises concern for obesity hypoventilation syndrome (OHS), which is characterized by alveolar hypoventilation (chronic hypoventilation with hypercapnia) that is not fully explained by other pulmonary or neuromuscular causes. While CPAP is commonly prescribed for obstructive sleep apnea, severe obesity increases the likelihood of associated hypoventilation physiology; in outpatient CDI review, this becomes a documentation opportunity to ensure the provider specifies whether the patient has OSA alone versus OSA with OHS/alveolar hypoventilation, because the latter reflects higher clinical complexity and requires clear monitoring/management (e.g., ABGs or bicarbonate trends, symptoms of hypoventilation, adherence, need for BiPAP). Heart failure and pulmonary edema are not implied by CPAP use, and essential hypertension is common in obesity but not the condition most specifically linked to CPAP dependence. Therefore, alveolar hypoventilation is the best supported answer.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following acronyms is often used in considering reportability of conditions?
- A. MEAT
- B. MACRA
- C. OPPS
- D. RADV
Answer: A
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, MEAT is a commonly taught framework used to determine whether a condition is sufficiently supported as reportable for a specific encounter. MEAT stands for Monitor, Evaluate, Assess/Address, and Treat. The concept is that diagnoses should not simply be copied forward on a problem list; they should be tied to provider work and clinical relevance during the visit. "Monitor" includes reviewing status, trends, or test results related to the condition. "Evaluate" includes ordering or interpreting studies, considering disease progression, or documenting response to therapy. "Assess/Address" includes documenting stability, exacerbation, or risk and making a plan (education, counseling, referrals). "Treat" includes medications, procedures, or other therapeutic interventions. Using MEAT helps CDI staff educate providers to document the current status and management of chronic diseases, supports accurate coding and risk adjustment, and reduces denials by showing medical necessity. OPPS, MACRA, and RADV are important regulatory/payment terms, but they are not the standard acronym used to assess encounter-level reportability.
NEW QUESTION # 22
After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, "I just don't see how this impacts patient care." Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?
- A. "It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient."
- B. "It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments."
- C. "It determines what you will be reimbursed."
- D. "It determines the patient's out of pocket expenses."
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is best explained to providers as a population-health and resource-planning tool, not a visit-level payment lever. In outpatient risk adjustment models, diagnoses and demographics are used to estimate the patient's overall disease burden and the expected cost/resources required to meet that patient's healthcare needs. When documentation accurately reflects active conditions and their specificity, the patient's risk profile is represented more realistically. That improves care in practical ways: it supports appropriate allocation of care management services (e.g., nurse navigators, chronic care programs), helps organizations anticipate medication, testing, specialist, and follow-up needs, and improves fairness of performance benchmarking by comparing outcomes and costs against similarly complex patients. Option A is overly simplistic because RAF does not directly determine an individual provider's reimbursement for a given encounter; it influences broader payment and benchmarking methodologies tied to attributed populations. Option C is not what RAF measures, and option D confuses RAF with medical necessity, which is based on clinical documentation and coverage rules, not a risk score.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which coding guideline is primarily used to assign ICD-10-CM codes in outpatient settings?
- A. Inpatient Coding Guidelines
- B. Outpatient Coding Guidelines
- C. CPT Coding Guidelines
- D. Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
Answer: B
Explanation:
ICD-10-CM diagnosis code assignment in the outpatient setting is governed primarily by the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting sections applicable to outpatient services. Outpatient rules differ from inpatient because there is no "principal diagnosis" established "after study" for an admission; instead, outpatient coding generally relies on the reason for the encounter and the conditions evaluated/managed that day, including documented chronic conditions that meet reporting criteria (often framed operationally as MEAT: monitor, evaluate, assess/address, treat). UHDDS is an inpatient discharge dataset concept used to define principal diagnosis and other inpatient reporting constructs, not the outpatient foundation. CPT guidelines govern procedure coding, not diagnosis coding; while CPT and ICD-10-CM must be consistent, CPT guidance does not replace ICD-10-CM outpatient diagnostic rules. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this is why documentation must clearly support encounter diagnoses, their status (active vs history), specificity (type, acuity, manifestations), and medical necessity for services rendered-so the outpatient ICD-10-CM guidelines can be applied correctly and consistently.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?
- A. A visit with a nutrition specialist
- B. Order placed for hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)
- C. Prescription written for the ACE inhibitor captopril
- D. Diagnostic chest x-ray
Answer: B
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI practice, a common reason to query is a mismatch between what is being evaluated/treated and what is explicitly documented as an active condition for the encounter. A diagnostic chest x-ray aligns with the already-documented symptom (chronic cough), and a nutrition specialist referral aligns with an established diagnosis (obesity); neither inherently suggests an undocumented condition. Prescribing captopril aligns with documented HTN management, so it generally would not create documentation ambiguity requiring clarification (even though ACE inhibitors can be associated with cough, the plan alone does not establish a new reportable diagnosis). In contrast, ordering an HbA1c often signals assessment for diabetes, impaired glucose regulation, or monitoring of known diabetes. Because diabetes is not listed in the history provided, the HbA1c order may prompt the CDI specialist to query whether the provider is evaluating a suspected or existing glycemic disorder, whether there is a diagnosis such as prediabetes/diabetes being addressed, and to ensure the record clearly supports the medical necessity and any reportable condition.
NEW QUESTION # 25
During a PCP visit, a provider notes a patient's history of pathological fracture of the thoracic spine related to osteoporosis. Documentation states: "Decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months." Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?
- A. Acuity of the pathological fracture
- B. Degree of muscle atrophy
- C. Presence of malnutrition
- D. Type of osteoporosis
Answer: C
Explanation:
The documentation "decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months" raises a strong clinical indicator for a nutrition-related condition (e.g., malnutrition, cachexia, or other clinically significant weight loss) that should be clarified by the provider. In outpatient CDI practice, ACDIS-based guidance emphasizes querying when there are objective or clearly stated indicators suggesting an additional diagnosis that is clinically relevant, affects management, or reflects patient complexity. Malnutrition is particularly important because it can explain functional decline, frailty, and increased risk of falls/fractures, and it often changes the care plan (dietary counseling, nutrition referral, supplementation, labs, monitoring). While "degree of muscle atrophy" and "acuity of the fracture" could matter in other contexts, the note explicitly highlights a systemic decline over six months rather than an acute fracture issue. "Type of osteoporosis" is relevant for specificity, but the new, clinically significant clue here is unintended weight loss with muscle wasting-making malnutrition the most appropriate clarification opportunity.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents "stage 3 CKD" as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?
- A. Query for stage 4 CKD.
- B. Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.
- C. Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.
- D. Review CKD staging criteria with provider.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CDI specialist should review CKD staging criteria with the provider because assigning CKD based on a single eGFR value can be clinically unreliable and may lead to inaccurate documentation and coding. Outpatient CDI guidance emphasizes that documentation must reflect a condition that is clinically valid, supported by the record, and accurately described, especially for chronic diseases. CKD is generally established by evidence of decreased kidney function or kidney damage that is persistent, not a one-time lab that could be affected by hydration status, acute illness, medications, or transient physiologic changes. While an eGFR of 52 falls within the numeric range commonly associated with stage 3a, the key CDI issue is the foundation for diagnosing chronic disease, not simply whether the number is "reportable." Option A inappropriately directs CDI to add diagnoses to claims; CDI supports providers and coding, but does not independently "add" conditions. Option C is incorrect because chronic conditions may be coded when addressed/impact care, not only when actively treated. Option D is unsupported because eGFR 52 does not suggest stage 4.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A patient is seen by an endocrinologist to manage his poorly controlled diabetes with peripheral neuropathy and claudication. The patient has had several toes amputated in prior years and currently has a non-healing ulcer on the left foot. The patient's additional chronic conditions consist of the following: HF, CAD, COPD, history of prostate cancer, arthritis, depression, and sleep apnea. Which of the following chronic conditions should the CDI specialist consider for future education regarding RAF impact with the endocrinologist?
- A. Diabetes, amputation, and skin ulcer
- B. CAD, diabetes, and COPD
- C. Sleep apnea, depression, and HF
- D. History of prostate cancer, arthritis, and A1C
Answer: A
Explanation:
For RAF impact in the CMS-HCC model, the most valuable provider education targets are conditions that (1) map to HCCs or interact with HCC hierarchies, and (2) are clearly within the specialist's scope to assess and manage during visits. In this scenario, the endocrinologist is actively treating diabetes and its complications. Diabetes with peripheral neuropathy/vascular disease plus an active non-healing foot ulcer reflects significant diabetic disease burden and often supports additional required coding (e.g., diabetes complication code plus a separate site/severity ulcer code). The history of toe amputations is also important because amputation status can represent ongoing complexity, affects care planning (risk of recurrent ulcer/infection), and may contribute to risk capture depending on the model and associated complications. By contrast, CAD/COPD/HF may not be evaluated by the endocrinologist at the visit, "A1C" is a lab value (not a diagnosis), and "history of prostate cancer" generally does not risk-adjust like active malignancy. Therefore, educating on documenting diabetes, amputation status, and ulcer details best supports RAF accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 28
In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)
- A. $3,291,200
- B. $148,800
- C. $17,785,600
- D. $1,785,600
Answer: D
Explanation:
This question applies the outpatient risk adjustment "reserve" concept: predicted cost is estimated by multiplying the member's risk factor contribution by a baseline per-member-per-month (PMPM) amount, then annualizing. The morbid obesity HCC factor is 0.186, and PMPM is $800. First compute the monthly cost impact: $800 × 0.186 = $148.80 per month per patient. Convert to yearly: $148.80 × 12 = $1,785.60 per patient per year. The year-over-year increase in patients with morbid obesity documentation is 11,000 - 10,000 = 1,000 additional patients. Multiply the annual per-patient impact by the additional patient count: $1,785.60 × 1,000 = $1,785,600. Outpatient CDI programs emphasize that improving documentation specificity (when clinically supported) can change whether an HCC is captured, which can affect RAF-based projections and resource planning. However, documentation must still be accurate, supported, and reflect conditions assessed/managed during the encounter.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?
- A. HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38
- B. HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38
- C. HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35
- D. HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the CMS-HCC model, certain disease groupings are arranged in hierarchies so that when multiple related conditions are reported for the same patient, only the most severe (highest-ranked) HCC in that hierarchy is counted for risk adjustment. This prevents "double counting" of clinically related conditions that represent the same underlying burden of illness. The cancer-related HCCs in the 35-38 range are an example of this hierarchical design: if a patient has diagnoses that map to more than one of these HCCs, the model retains the highest-ranked category and suppresses the lower ones. Therefore, the correct hierarchy order is from the most severe category (HCC 35) down sequentially through HCC 36, HCC 37, and HCC 38. From an outpatient CDI perspective, this reinforces why accuracy and specificity matter: documentation should clearly establish the most clinically severe, active, and treated condition so the correct (highest) HCC is captured, rather than relying on nonspecific or less severe descriptors that could under-represent patient complexity.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?
- A. Medicare administrative contractors
- B. Zone program integrity contractors
- C. Recovery audit contractors
- D. Risk adjustment validation contractors
Answer: A
Explanation:
CMS assigns Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) to administer Medicare fee-for-service operations at the jurisdictional level, including processing and paying both Part A and Part B claims. In outpatient CDI terms, MACs are central because they apply Medicare coverage rules, edit logic, and payment policies that determine whether documentation supports medical necessity and correct coding for submitted claims. This includes adjudicating hospital outpatient (Part B) services and facility-based Part A services, handling provider enrollment functions, issuing Local Coverage Determinations (as applicable through their medical review processes), and responding to claim inquiries and appeals routing. By contrast, Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs) focus on identifying and recovering improper payments (post-payment auditing). Risk Adjustment Data Validation (RADV) contractors validate diagnosis data submitted for risk-adjusted programs (primarily Medicare Advantage), not routine FFS claim processing. Zone Program Integrity Contractors (ZPICs) (and their successors in some contexts) focus on program integrity and fraud/waste/abuse investigations rather than standard claim adjudication. Therefore, the entity responsible for processing Part A and Part B beneficiary claims is the MAC.
NEW QUESTION # 31
CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure
- A. a beneficiary's risk of mortality.
- B. an individual's anticipated cost of care.
- C. physician cost of care provision.
- D. group beneficiary costs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology is designed to estimate an individual beneficiary's expected healthcare resource use and cost relative to an average Medicare beneficiary. It does this by converting demographic factors (such as age/sex and certain eligibility variables) plus documented, coded chronic conditions into a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF). That RAF is then used to forecast the likely cost of caring for that specific patient in the payment year and to adjust benchmarks/payments so plans and providers managing sicker patients are compared more fairly to those managing healthier patients. This is why outpatient CDI emphasizes accurate, specific documentation and annual recapture of active conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated-because those coded conditions drive the predicted cost profile. CMS-HCC is not a mortality prediction tool (eliminating B), nor is it intended to measure "group costs" as the primary target (C), even though aggregated risk scores can be used for population analytics. It also does not measure an individual physician's cost of care provision (D); it measures patient-level expected cost burden.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?
- A. Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.
- B. Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.
- C. Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.
- D. Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, diagnoses documented as uncertain (e.g., "possible," "probable," "suspected," "rule out") are generally not coded as confirmed conditions; instead, coding is based on confirmed diagnoses or, when not confirmed, the presenting signs/symptoms. Here, the provider documented only "possible Zika," which is not a confirmed diagnosis for outpatient reporting. Even though the CDI specialist sees a positive serology result, lab data alone does not replace provider diagnostic confirmation in the assessment/plan. The appropriate next step is to query the provider to confirm whether Zika is the established diagnosis based on the positive test (and whether it is clinically addressed during the encounter). If confirmed, Zika can be coded appropriately and sequenced based on the reason for the visit; if not confirmed or still under evaluation, the symptom (fever) remains first-listed. Option B is incorrect because coders do not "code the result" of a serology test as a diagnosis; they code the condition the test supports once clinically confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 33
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